SOLUTION : (i) $f(-x)=-f(x)$ so it is odd function
(ii) $\quad f^{\prime}(x)=3(\log (\sec x+\tan x))^2 \frac{1}{(\sec x+\tan x)}\left(\sec x \tan x+\sec ^2 x\right)>0$
(iii) Range of $f(x)$ is $R$ as $f\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\right) \Rightarrow-\infty \Rightarrow f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) \Rightarrow \infty$
Hence Option (ABC) is Correct.